some thoughts on
I wonder what was the logic behind the question for the call.
The history of politics has demonstrated a simple fact: there are different governing structures (check the CIA: https://www.cia.gov/library/publications/the-world-factbook/fields/2128.html;
or just read
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Forms_of_government - textbook on political history would be better, but wikipedia is better than nothing).
The next fact: different governing structures are based on different distribution of mass involvement.
The third fact: a democracy is based on wide involvement of the masses into the decisions making process; no mass involvement - no democracy.
The forth fact: to present their power the masses form groups based on the similarity of their interests - how do you want to call those groups - parties, or something else - it is irrelevant.
Mechanics (technical methods) for group formation may be different, but in the end, the bigger is a social support and people representation of a group, the more it has political power, meaning, the more influence it has on a decision-making process.
Those all are very well known and long time ago established FACTS - denying those as facts is not different from denying the existence of the correlation between the climate change the human activities.
Asking "are the political parties usable?" demonstrates either (1) political infantilism; or (2) the intention to manipulate people into doing something - here I start wondering - into what?